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1. A benefit of open system architecture is that it: A. facilitates interoperability. B. facilitates the integration of proprietary components. C. will be a basis for volume discounts from equipment vendors. D. allows for the achievement of more economies of scale for equipment. ANSWER: A NOTE: Open systems are those for which suppliers provide components whose interfaces are defined by public standards, thus facilitating interoperability between systems made by different vendors. In contrast, closed system components are built to proprietary standards so that other suppliers' systems cannot or will not interface with existing systems. . An IS auditor discovers that developers have operator access to the command line of a production environment operating system. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of undetected and unauthorized program changes to the production environment? A. Commands typed on the command line are logged B. Hash keys are calculated periodica lly for programs and matched against hash keys calculated for the most recent authorized versions of the programs C. Access to the operating system command line is granted through an access restriction tool with preapproved rights D.Software development tools and compilers have been removed from the production environment ANSWER: B NOTE: The matching of hash keys over time would allow detection of changes to files. Choice A is incorrect because having a log is not a control, reviewing the log is a control. Choice C is incorrect because the access was already granted—it does not matter how. Choice D is wrong because files can be copied to and from the production environment. 3. In the context of effective information security governance, the primary objective of value delivery is to: A. optimize security investments in support of business objectives.B. implement a standard set of security practices. C. institute a standards-based solution. D. implement a continuous improvement culture. ANSWER: A NOTE: In the context of effective information security governance, value delivery is implemented to ensure optimization of security investments in support of business objectives. The tools and techniques for implementing value delivery include implementation of a standard set of security practices, institutionalization and commoditization of standards-based solutions, and implementation of a continuous improvement culture considering security as a process, not an event. 4.During a review of a business continuity plan, an IS auditor noticed that the point at which a situation is declared to be a crisis has not been defined. The MAJOR risk associated with this is that: A. assessment of the situation may be delayed. B. execution of the disaster recovery plan could be impacted. C. notification of the teams might not occur. D. potential crisis recognition might be ineffective. ANSWER: B NOTE: Execution of the business continuity plan would be impacted if the organizat ion does not know when to declare a crisis. Choices A, C and D are steps that must be performed to know whether to declare a crisis.Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessary in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis management need to be notified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having response teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster. 5. When implementing an IT governance framework in an organization the MOST important objective is: A. IT alignment with the business. B. accountability. C. value realization with IT. D. enhancing the return on IT investments.ANSWER: A NOTE: The goals of IT governance are to improve IT performance, to deliver optimum business value and to ensure regulatory compliance. The key practice in support of these goals is the strategic alignment of IT with the business (choice A). To achieve alignment, all other choices need to be tied to business practices and strategies. 6. When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a corporate WAN, an IS auditor should expect to find: A. an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link. B. traffic engineering. C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) encryption of data.D. analog phone terminals. ANSWER: B NOTE: To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide area network (WAN) should be protected from packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managed using statistical techniques such as traffic engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link would not provide the quality of services required for corporate VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless networking.The VoIP phones are usually connected to a corporate local area network (LAN) and are not ana log. 7. An IS auditor selects a server for a penetration test that will be carried out by a technical specialist. Which of the following is MOST important? A. The tools used to conduct the test B. Certifications held by the IS auditor C. Permission from the data owner of the server D. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is enabled ANSWER: C NOTE: The data owner should be informed of the risks associated with a penetration test, what types of tests are to be conducted and other relevant details.All other choices are not as important as the data owner's responsibility for the security of the data assets. 8. Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? A. Increases the dependence on one employee B. Does not assist in succession planning C. One employee may know all parts of a system D. Does not help in achieving a continuity of operations ANSWER: C NOTE: When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any person knowing all parts of a system and what exposur es this may cause. Cross-training has the advantage of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning.It also provides backup for personnel in the event of absence for any reason and thereby facilitates the continuity of operations. 9. The use of digital signatures: A. requires the use of a one-time password generator. B. provides encryption to a message. C. validates the source of a message. D. ensures message confidentiality. ANSWER: C NOTE: The use of a digital signature verifies the identity of the sender, but does not encrypt the whole message, and hence is not enough to ensure confidentiality. A one-time password generator is an option, but is not a requirement for using digital signatures. 0. A retail outlet has introduced radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to create unique serial numbers for all products. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern associated with this initiative? A. Issues of privacy B. Wavelength can be absor bed by the human body C. RFID tags may not be removable D. RFID eliminates line-of-sight reading ANSWER: A NOTE: The purchaser of an item will not necessarily be aware of the presence of the tag. If a tagged item is paid for by credit card, it would be possible to tie the unique ID of that item to the identity of the purchaser.Privacy violations are a significant concern because RFID can carry unique identifier numbers. If desired it would be possible for a firm to track individuals who purchase an item containing an RFID. Choices B and C are concerns of less importance. Choice D is not a concern. 11. A lower recovery time objective (RTO) results in: A. higher disaster tolerance. B. higher cost. C. wider interruption windows. D. more permissive data loss. ANSWER: B NOTE: A recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the acceptable downtime in case of a disruption of operations. The lower the RTO, the higher the cost of recovery strategies.The lower the disaster tolerance, the narrower the interruption windows, and the lesser the permissive data loss. 12. During the requirements definition phase of a software development project, the aspects of software testing that should be addressed are developing: A. test data covering critical applications. B. detailed test plans. C. quality assurance test specifications. D. user acceptance testing specifications. ANSWER: D NOTE: A key objective in any software development project is to ensure that the developed software will meet the business objectives and the requirements of the user.The users should be involved in the requirements definition phase of a development project and user acceptance test specification should be developed during this phase. The other choices are generally performed during the system testing phase. 13. The BEST filter rule for protecting a network from being used as an amplifier in a denial of service (DoS) attack is to deny all: A. outgoing traffic with IP source addresses external to the network . B. incoming traffic with discernible spoofed IP source addresses. C. incoming traffic with IP options set.D. incoming traffic to critical hosts. ANSWER: A NOTE: Outgoing traffic with an IP source address different than the IP range in the network is invalid. In most of the cases, it signals a DoS attack originated by an internal user or by a previously compromised internal machine; in both cases, applying this filter will stop the attack. 14. What is the BEST backup strategy for a large database with data supporting online sales? A. Weekly full backup with daily incremental backup B. Daily full backup C. Clustered servers D. Mirrored hard disks ANSWER: ANOTE: Weekly full backup and daily incremental backup is the best backup strategy; it ensures the ability to recover the database and yet reduces the daily backup time requirements. A full backup normally requires a couple of hours, and therefore it can be impractical to conduct a full backup every day. Clustered servers provide a redundant processing capability, but are not a backup. Mirrored hard disks will not help in case of disaster. 15. Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks? A. Session keys are dynamicB. Private symmetric keys are used C. Keys are static and shared D. Source addresses are not encrypted or authenticated ANSWER: A NOTE: WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys (same key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP. 16. The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to: A. encourage optimal use of IT. B. reduce IT costs. C. decentralize IT resources across the organization. D. centralize control of IT. ANSWER: ANOTE: IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise. It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise. Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise desiring a single point of customer contact. 17. The MAIN purpose of a transaction audit trail is to:A. reduce the use of storage media. B. determine accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. C. help an IS auditor trace transactions. D. provide useful information for capacity planning. ANSWER: B NOTE: Enabling audit trails aids in establishing the accountability and responsibility for processed transactions by tracing them through the information system. Enabling audit trails increases the use of disk space. A transaction log file would be used to trace transactions, but would not aid in determining accountability and responsibility.The objective of capacity planning is the efficient an d effective use of IT resources and requires information such as CPU utilization, bandwidth, number of users, etc. 18. An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue, the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start impacting the project, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to: A. tress the importance of spending time at this point in the project to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. B. accept the project manager's position as the project manager is accountable for the outcome of the project. C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. D. inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. ANSWER: A NOTE: The majority of project risks can typically be i dentified before a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to deal with these risks.A project should have a clear link back to corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a failure of risk management.With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 19. A data center has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is MOST important to protect the computing assets in the center?A. Badge readers are installed in locations where tampering would be noticed B. The computer that controls the badge system is backed up frequently C. A process for promptly deactivating lost or stolen badges exists D. All badge entry attempts are logged ANSWER: C NOTE: Tampering with a badge reader cannot open the door, so this is irrelevant. Logging the entry attempts may be of limited value. The biggest risk is from unauthorized individuals who can enter the data center, whether they are employees or not. Thus, a process of deactivating lost or stolen badges is important.The configuration of the system does not change frequently, therefore frequent backup is not necessary. 20. Which of the following would impair the independence of a quality assurance tea m? A. Ensuring compliance with development methods B. Checking the testing assumptions C. Correcting coding errors during the testing process D. Checking the code to ensure proper documentation ANSWER: C NOTE: Correction of code should not be a responsibility of the quality assurance team as it would not ensure segregation of duties and would impair the team's independence. The other choices are valid quality assurance functions. 1. Which of the following is the BEST type of program for an organization to implement to aggregate, correlate and store different log and event files, and then produce weekly and monthly reports for IS auditors? A. A security information event management (SIEM) product B. An open-source correlation engine C. A log management tool D. An extract, transform, load (ETL) system ANSWER: C NOTE: A log management tool is a product designed to aggregate events from many log files (with distinct formats and from different sources), store them and typically correlate them offline to produce many reports (e. . , exception reports showing different statistics including anomalies and suspicious activities), and to answer time-based queries (e. g. , how many users have entered the system between 2 a. m. and 4 a. m. over the past three weeks? ). A SIEM product has some similar features. It correlates events from log files, but does it online and normally is not oriented to storing many weeks of historical information and producing audit reports. A correlation engine is part of a SIEM product. It is oriented to making an online correlation of events.An extract, transform, load (ETL) is part of a business intelligence system, dedicated to extracting operational or production data, transforming that data and loading them to a central repository (data warehouse or data mart); an ETL does not correlate data or produce reports, and normally it does not have extractors to read log file formats. 22. To ensure authentication, confidentiality and integrity of a message, the sender should encrypt the hash of the message with the sender's: A. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. B. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key.C. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key. D. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. ANSWER: B NOTE: Obtaining the hash of the message ensures integrity; signing the hash of the message with the sender's private key ensures the authenticity of the origin, and encrypting the resulting message with the receiver's public key ensures confidentiality. The other choices are incorrect. 23. An IS auditor observes a weakness in the tape management system at a data center in that some parameters are set to bypass or ignore tape header records.Which of the following is the MOST effective compensating control for this weakness? A. Staging and job set up B. Supervisory review of logs C. Regular back-up of tapes D. Offsite storage of tapes ANSWER: A NOTE: If the IS auditor finds that there are effective staging and job set up processes, this can be accepted as a compensating control. Choice B is a detective control while choices C and D are corrective controls, none of which would serve as good compensating controls. 24. What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization implements remote virtual private network (VPN) access to its network?A. Malicious code could be spread across the network B. VPN logon could be spoofed C. Traffic could be sniffed and decrypted D. VPN gateway could be compromised ANSWER: A NOTE: VPN is a mature technology; VPN devices are hard to break. However, when remote access is enabled, malicious code in a remote client could spread to the organization's network. Though choices B, C and D are security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks. 25. The activation of an enterprise's business continuity plan should be based on predetermine d criteria that address the: A. duration of the outage. B. ype of outage. C. probability of the outage. D. cause of the outage. ANSWER: A NOTE: The initiation of a business continuity plan (action) should primarily be based on the maximum period for which a business function can be disrupted before the disruption threatens the achievement of organizational objectives. 26. After observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic analysis. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the investigator? A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain B. Guest account is enabled on the server C.Recently, 100 users were created in the server D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server ANSWER: D NOTE: Audit logs can provide evidence which is required to proceed with an investigation and should not be disabled. For business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, not a concern. Having a guest account enab led on a system is a poor security practice but not a forensic investigation concern. Recently creating 100 users in the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern. 27. Minimum password length and password complexity verification are examples of: A. etection controls. B. control objectives. C. audit objectives. D. control procedures. ANSWER: D NOTE: Control procedures are practices established by management to achieve specific control objectives. Password controls are preventive controls, not detective controls. Control objectives are declarations of expected results from implementing controls and audit objectives are the specific goals of an audit. 28. Which of the following is an advantage of the top-down approach to software testing? A. Interface errors are identified early B. Testing can be started before all programs are complete C.It is more effective than other testing approaches D. Errors in critical modules are detected sooner ANSWER: A NOTE: The advantage of the top-down approach is that tests of major functions are conducted early, thus enabling the detection of interface errors sooner. The most effective testing approach is dependent on the environment being tested. Choices B and D are advantages of the bottom-up approach to system testing. 29. After initial investigation, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that fraud may be present. The IS auditor should: A. expand activities to determine whether an investigation is warranted.B. report the matter to the audit committee. C. report the possibility of fraud to top management and ask how they would like to proceed. D. consult with external legal counsel to determine the course of action to be taken. ANSWER: A NOTE: An IS auditor's responsibilities for detecting fraud include evaluating fraud indicators and deciding whether any additional action is necessary or whether an investigation should be recommended. The IS auditor should notify the appropriate authoritie s within the organization only if it has determined that the indicators of fraud are sufficient to recommend an investigation.Normally, the IS auditor does not have authority to consult with external legal counsel. 30. As a driver of IT governance, transparency of IT's cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through: A. performance measurement. B. strategic alignment. C. value delivery. D. resource management. ANSWER: A NOTE: Performance measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver (process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance). Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans.Value delivery is about executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is about the optimal investment in and proper management of critical IT resources. Transparency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides informati on to the stakeholders on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives. 31. A technical lead who was working on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is accessible to the whole team.What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation? A. Audit logs are not enabled for the system B. A logon ID for the technical lead still exists C. Spyware is installed on the system D. A Trojan is installed on the system ANSWER: A NOTE: Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event; however, if not enabled, misuse of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove.Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user an d, again, without the presence of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is accessible to the whole group and, without the presence of logs, investigation would be difficult. 32. When using a universal storage bus (USB) flash drive to transport confidential corporate data to an offsite location, an effective control would be to: A. carry the flash drive in a portable safe. B. assure management that you will not lose the flash drive. C. equest that management deliver the flash drive by courier. D. encrypt the folder containing the data with a strong key. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption, with a strong key, is the most secure method for protecting the information on the flash drive. Carrying the flash drive in a portable safe does not guarantee the safety of the information in the event that the safe is stolen or lost. No matter what measures you take, the chance of losing the flash drive still exists. It is possible that a courier might lose the flash drive or that it might be stolen. 33. The FIRST step in a successful attack to a system would be: A. gathering information. B. aining access. C. denying services. D. evading detection. ANSWER: A NOTE: Successful attacks start by gathering information about the target system. This is done in advance so that the attacker gets to know the target systems and their vulnerabilities. All of the other choices are based on the information gathered. 34. An IS auditor finds that conference rooms have active network ports. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure? A. The corporate network is using an intrusion prevention system (IPS) B. This part of the network is isolated from the corporate network C. A single sign-on has been implemented in the corporate network D.Antivirus software is in place to protect the corporate network ANSWER: B NOTE: If the conference rooms have access to the corporate network, unauthorized us ers may be able to connect to the corporate network; therefore, both networks should be isolated either via a firewall or being physically separated. An IPS would detect possible attacks, but only after they have occurred. A single sign-on would ease authentication management. Antivirus software would reduce the impact of possible viruses; however, unauthorized users would still be able to access the corporate network, which is the biggest risk. 5. While observing a full simulation of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the notification systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infrastructural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure: A. the salvage team is trained to use the notification system. B. the notification system provides for the recovery of the backup. C. redundancies are built into the notification system. D. the notification systems are stored in a vault. ANSWER: CNO TE: If the notification system has been severely impacted by the damage, redundancy would be the best control. The salvage team would not be able to use a severely damaged notification system, even if they are trained to use it. The recovery of the backups has no bearing on the notification system and storing the notification system in a vault would be of little value if the building is damaged. 36. The human resources (HR) department has developed a system to allow employees to enroll in benefits via a web site on the corporate Intranet. Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of the data?A. SSL encryption B. Two-factor authentication C. Encrypted session cookies D. IP address verification ANSWER: A NOTE: The main risk in this scenario is confidentiality, therefore the only option which would provide confidentiality is Secure Socket Layer (SSL) encryption. The remaining options deal with authentication issues. 37. Regarding a disaster recovery plan, the role of an IS auditor should include: A. identifying critical applications. B. determining the external service providers involved in a recovery test. C. observing the tests of the disaster recovery plan. D. etermining the criteria for establishing a recovery time objective (RTO). ANSWER: C NOTE: The IS auditor should be present when disaster recovery plans are tested, to ensure that the test meets the targets for restoration, and the recovery procedures are effective and efficient. As appropriate, the auditor should provide a report of the test results. All other choices are a responsibility of management. 38. Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure that access authorizations are still valid? A. Information owner provides authorization for users to gain access B. Identity management is integrated with human resource processes C.Information owners periodically review the access controls D. An authorization matrix is used to establish validity of access ANSWER: B NOTE: Personnel a nd departmental changes can result in authorization creep and can impact the effectiveness of access controls. Many times when personnel leave an organization, or employees are promoted, transferred or demoted, their system access is not fully removed, which increases the risk of unauthorized access. The best practices for ensuring access authorization is still valid is to integrate identity management with human resources processes.When an employee transfers to a different function, access rights are adjusted at the same time. 39. The application systems of an organization using open-source software have no single recognized developer producing patches. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way of updating open-source software? A. Rewrite the patches and apply them B. Code review and application of available patches C. Develop in-house patches D. Identify and test suitable patches before applying them ANSWER: D NOTE: Suitable patches from the existing developers should be selected and tested before applying them.Rewriting the patches and applying them is not a correct answer because it would require skilled resources and time to rewrite the patches. Code review could be possible but tests need to be performed before applying the patches. Since the system was developed outside the organization, the IT department may not have the necessary skills and resources to develop patches. 40. Which of the following is a prevalent risk in the development of end-user computing (EUC) applications? A. Applications may not be subject to testing and IT general controls B. Increased development and maintenance costsC. Increased application development time D. Decision-making may be impaired due to diminished responsiveness to requests for information ANSWER: A NOTE: End-user developed applications may not be subjected to an independent outside review by systems analysts and frequently are not created in the context of a formal development methodology. These applicati ons may lack appropriate standards, controls, quality assurance procedures, and documentation. A risk of end-user applications is that management may rely on them as much as traditional applications.End-user computing (EUC) systems typically result in reduced application development and maintenance costs, and a reduced development cycle time. EUC systems normally increase flexibility and responsiveness to management's information requests. 41. The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organization's IT project portfolio is the: A. IT budget. B. existing IT environment. C. business plan. D. investment plan. ANSWER: C NOTE: One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organization's strategic objectives.Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a company's overall IT strategy. IT strategy should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but secondary to the importance of reviewing the business plan. 42. Which of the following is an attribute of the control self-assessment (CSA) approach? A. Broad stakeholder involvement B. Auditors are the primary control analysts C. Limited employee participation D. Policy driven ANSWER: ANOTE: The control self-assessment (CSA) approach emphasizes management of and accountability for developing and monitoring the controls of an organization's business processes. The attributes of CSA include empowered employees, continuous improvement, extensive employee participation and training, all of which are representations of broad stakeholder involvement. Choices B, C and D are attributes of a traditional audit approach. 43. The BEST method for assessing the effectiveness of a business continuity plan is to review the: A. plans and compare them to appropriate standards. B. results from previous tests.C. emergency procedures and employee training. D. offsite storage an d environmental controls. ANSWER: B NOTE: Previous test results will provide evidence of the effectiveness of the business continuity plan. Comparisons to standards will give some assurance that the plan addresses the critical aspects of a business continuity plan but will not reveal anything about its effectiveness. Reviewing emergency procedures, offsite storage and environmental controls would provide insight into some aspects of the plan but would fall short of providing assurance of the plan's overall effectiveness. 4. An organization has just completed their annual risk assessment. Regarding the business continuity plan, what should an IS auditor recommend as the next step for the organization? A. Review and evaluate the business continuity plan for adequacy B. Perform a full simulation of the business continuity plan C. Train and educate employees regarding the business continuity plan D. Notify critical contacts in the business continuity plan ANSWER: A NOTE: The business co ntinuity plan should be reviewed every time a risk assessment is completed for the organization.Training of the employees and a simulation should be performed after the business continuity plan has been deemed adequate for the organization. There is no reason to notify the business continuity plan contacts at this time. 45. Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from fraudulent acts by employees? A. Business interruption B. Fidelity coverage C. Errors and omissions D. Extra expense ANSWER: B NOTE: Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from dishonest or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization.Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner commits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is designed to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization. 46. An IS auditor reviewing the risk assessment process of an organization should FIRST: A. identify the reasonable threats to the information assets. B. analyze the technical and organizational vulnerabilities. C. identify and rank the information assets. D. evaluate the effect of a potential security breach.ANSWER: C NOTE: Identification and ranking of information assets—e. g. , data criticality, locations of assets—will set the tone or scope of how to assess risk in relation to the organizational value of the asset. Second, the threats facing each of the organization's assets should be analyzed according to their value to the organization. Third, weaknesses should be identified so that controls can be evaluated to determine if they mitigate the weaknesses. Fourth, analyze how these weaknesses, in absence of given controls, would impact the organization information assets. 47.An organization is using an enterpr ise resource management (ERP) application. Which of the following would be an effective access control? A. User-level permissions B. Role-based C. Fine-grained D. Discretionary ANSWER: B NOTE: Role-based access controls the system access by defining roles for a group of users. Users are assigned to the various roles and the access is granted based on the user's role. User-level permissions for an ERP system would create a larger administrative overhead. Fine-grained access control is very difficult to implement and maintain in the context of a large nterprise. Discretionary access control may be configured or modified by the users or data owners, and therefore may create inconsistencies in the access control management. 48. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a: A. certificate authority. B. digital signature. C. digital certificate. D. registration authority. ANSWER: C NOTE: A digital certificate is an electronic document that declares a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message.A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i. e. , registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate. 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification? A. Smart card B. PasswordC. Photo identification D. Iris scan ANSWER: D NOTE: Since no two irises are alike, identification and verification can be done with confidence. There is no guarantee that a smart card is being used by the correct person since it can be shared, stolen or lost and found. Passwords can be shared and, if written down, carry the risk of discovery. Photo IDs can be forged or falsified. 50. A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password embedded in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organization's data? A.Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe B. Apply role-based permissions within the application system C. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction D. Set an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program ANSWER: B NOTE: When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a user's role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation.Having a user input the ID and passwo rd for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire. 51. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when deciding areas of priority for IT governance implementation?A. Process maturity B. Performance indicators C. Business risk D. Assurance reports ANSWER: C NOTE: Priority should be given to those areas which represent a known risk to the enterprise's operations. The level of process maturity, process performance and audit reports will feed into the decision making process. Those areas that represent real risk to the business should be given priority. 52. An IS auditor has been asked to partic ipate in project initiation meetings for a critical project. The IS auditor's MAIN concern should be that the: A. omplexity and risks associated with the project have been analyzed. B. resources needed throughout the project have been determined. C. project deliverables have been identified. D. a contract for external parties involved in the project has been completed. ANSWER: A NOTE: Understanding complexity and risk, and actively managing these throughout a project are critical to a successful outcome. The other choices, while important during the course of the project, cannot be fully determined at the time the project is initiated, and are often contingent upon the risk and complexity of the project. 3. Which of the following would MOST effectively control the usage of universal storage bus (USB) storage devices? A. Policies that require instant dismissal if such devices are found B. Software for tracking and managing USB storage devices C. Administratively disabling the USB por t D. Searching personnel for USB storage devices at the facility's entrance ANSWER: B NOTE: Software for centralized tracking and monitoring would allow a USB usage policy to be applied to each user based on changing business requirements, and would provide for monitoring and reporting exceptions to management.A policy requiring dismissal may result in increased employee attrition and business requirements would not be properly addressed. Disabling ports would be complex to manage and might not allow for new business needs. Searching of personnel for USB storage devices at the entrance to a facility is not a practical solution since these devices are small and could be easily hidden. 54. When performing a database review, an IS auditor notices that some tables in the database are not normalized. The IS auditor should next: A. recommend that the database be normalized. B. review the conceptual data model.C. review the stored procedures. D. review the justification. ANSWER: D NOTE: If the database is not normalized, the IS auditor should review the justification since, in some situations, denormalization is recommended for performance reasons. The IS auditor should not recommend normalizing the database until further investigation takes place. Reviewing the conceptual data model or the stored procedures will not provide information about normalization. 55. Which of the following would be the GREATEST cause for concern when data are sent over the Internet using HTTPS protocol? A.Presence of spyware in one of the ends B. The use of a traffic sniffing tool C. The implementation of an RSA-compliant solution D. A symmetric cryptography is used for transmitting data ANSWER: A NOTE: Encryption using secure sockets layer/transport layer security (SSL/TLS) tunnels makes it difficult to intercept data in transit, but when spyware is running on an end user's computer, data are collected before encryption takes place. The other choices are related to encrypting the traffic, but the presence of spyware in one of the ends captures the data before encryption takes place. 56.At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following? A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects C. Verifying the controls in the delivered system are working D. Ensuring that test data are deleted ANSWER: B NOTE: A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects.An assessment of potential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implementing a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. Test data should be retained for future regression testing. 57. While reviewing the IT infrastructure, an IS auditor notices that storage resources are continuously being added. The IS auditor should: A. recommend the use of disk mirroring. B. review the adequacy of offsite storage. C. eview the capacity management process. D. recommend the use of a compression algorithm. ANSWER: C NOTE: Capacity management is the planning and monitoring of computer resources to ensure that available IT resources are used efficiently and effectively. Business criticality must be considered before recommending a disk mirroring solution and offsite storage is unrelated to the problem. Though data compression may save disk space, it could affect system performance. 58. Which of the following would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when conducting a business continuity audit? A.Data backups are performed on a timely basis B. A recovery site is contracted for and available as needed C. Human safety procedures a re in place D. Insurance coverage is adequate and premiums are current ANSWER: C NOTE: The most important element in any business continuity process is the protection of human life. This takes precedence over all other aspects of the plan. 59. While reviewing sensitive electronic work papers, the IS auditor noticed that they were not encrypted. This could compromise the: A. audit trail of the versioning of the work papers. B. approval of the audit phases.C. access rights to the work papers. D. confidentiality of the work papers. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption provides confidentiality for the electronic work papers. Audit trails, audit phase approvals and access to the work papers do not, of themselves, affect the confidentiality but are part of the reason for requiring encryption. 60. An IS auditor reviewing an accounts payable system discovers that audit logs are not being reviewed. When this issue is raised with management the response is that additional controls are not necessary bec ause effective system access controls are in place.The BEST response the auditor can make is to: A. review the integrity of system access controls. B. accept management's statement that effective access controls are in place. C. stress the importance of having a system control framework in place. D. review the background checks of the accounts payable staff. ANSWER: C NOTE: Experience has demonstrated that reliance purely on preventative controls is dangerous. Preventative controls may not prove to be as strong as anticipated or their effectiveness can deteriorate over time.Evaluating the cost of controls versus the quantum of risk is a valid management concern. However, in a high-risk system a comprehensive control framework is needed. Intelligent design should permit additional detective and corrective controls to be established that don't have high ongoing costs, e. g. , automated interrogation of logs to highlight suspicious individual transactions or data patterns. Effective ac cess controls are, in themselves, a positive but, for reasons outlined above, may not sufficiently compensate for other control weaknesses. In this situation the IS auditor needs to be proactive.The IS auditor has a fundamental obligation to point out control weaknesses that give rise to unacceptable risks to the organization and work with management to have these corrected. Reviewing background checks on accounts payable staff does not provide evidence that fraud will not occur. 61. A firewall is being deployed at a new location. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in ensuring a successful deployment? A. Reviewing logs frequently B. Testing and validating the rules C. Training a local administrator at the new location D. Sharing firewall administrative dutiesANSWER: B NOTE: A mistake in the rule set can render a firewall insecure. Therefore, testing and validating the rules is the most important factor in ensuring a successful deployment. A regular review of log fil es would not start until the deployment has been completed. Training a local administrator may not be necessary if the firewalls are managed from a central location. Having multiple administrators is a good idea, but not the most important. 62. When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of: A. xcessive transaction turnaround time. B. application interface failure. C. improper transaction authorization. D. nonvalidated batch totals. ANSWER: C NOTE: Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data interchange (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not as significant. 63. The PRIMARY objective of implementing corporate governance by an organization's management is to: A. provide strategic direction. B. control business operations.C. align IT with business. D. implement best prac tices. ANSWER: A NOTE: Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized. Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations are directed and controlled. 64. To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to production code the BEST audit procedure is to: A. xamine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. review change approved designations established within the change control system. ANSWER: C NOTE: The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back t o change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes.The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes. 65. When reviewing an active project, an IS auditor observed that, because of a reduction in anticipated benefits and increased costs, the business case was no longer valid. The IS auditor should recommend that the: A. project be discontinued. B. business case be updated and possible corrective actions be identified. C. project be returned to the project sponsor for reapproval. D. project be ompleted and the business case be updated later. ANSWER: B NOTE: An IS auditor should not recommend discontinuing or completing the project before reviewing an updated business case. The IS auditor should recommend that the business case be kept current throughout the project since it is a key input to decisions made throughout the life o f any project. 66. Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there have been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? A. Test data run B. Code review C.Automated code comparison D. Review of code migration procedures ANSWER: C NOTE: An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements.A code review can be used as a means of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 67. Doing which of the following d uring peak production hours could result in unexpected downtime? A. Performing data migration or tape backup B. Performing preventive maintenance on electrical systems C. Promoting applications from development to the staging environment D. Replacing a failed power supply in the core router of the data center ANSWER: B NOTE: Choices A and C are processing events which may impact performance, but ould not cause downtime. Enterprise-class routers have redundant hot-swappable power supplies, so replacing a failed power supply should not be an issue. Preventive maintenance activities should be scheduled for non-peak times of the day, and preferably during a maintenance window time period. A mishap or incident caused by a maintenance worker could result in unplanned downtime. 68. Which of the following is the MOST robust method for disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information? A. Degaussing B. Defragmenting C. Erasing D. Destroying ANSWER: DNOTE: Destroying magnetic media is the only way to assure that confidential information cannot be recovered. Degaussing or demagnetizing is not sufficient to fully erase information from magnetic media. The purpose of defragmentation is to eliminate fragmentation in file systems and does not remove information. Erasing or deleting magnetic media does not remove the information; this method simply changes a file's indexing information. 69. The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is: A. cost of recovery. B. negative public opinion. C. geographic location. D. downtime.ANSWER: D NOTE: The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of an incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident. 70. During the design of a business continuity plan, the business impact a nalysis (BIA) identifies critical processes and supporting applications. This will PRIMARILY influence the: A. responsibility for maintaining the business continuity plan. B. criteria for selecting a recovery site provider.C. recovery strategy. D. responsibilities of key personnel. ANSWER: C NOTE: The most appropriate strategy is selected based on the relative risk level and criticality identified in the business impact analysis (BIA. ), The other choices are made after the selection or design of the appropriate recovery strategy. 71. What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists? A. Repeatable but Intuitive B. Defined C. Managed and Measurable D. Optimized ANSWER: B NOTE: Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined. 2. During the system testing phase of an application development project the IS auditor should review the: A. conceptual design specifications. B. vendor contract. C. error repor ts. D. program change requests. ANSWER: C NOTE: Testing is crucial in determining that user requirements have been validated. The IS auditor should be involved in this phase and review error reports for their precision in recognizing erroneous data and review the procedures for resolving errors. A conceptual design specification is a document prepared during the requirements definition phase. A vendor ontract is prepared during a software acquisition process. Program change requests would normally be reviewed as a part of the postimplementation phase. 73. When reviewing procedures for emergency changes to programs, the IS auditor should verify that the procedures: A. allow changes, which will be completed using after-the-fact follow-up. B. allow undocumented changes directly to the production library. C. do not allow any emergency changes. D. allow programmers permanent access to production programs. ANSWER: A NOTE: There may be situations where emergency fixes are required to resol ve system problems.This involves the use of special logon IDs that grant programmers temporary access to production programs during emergency situations. Emergency changes should be completed using after-the-fact follow-up procedures, which ensure that normal procedures are retroactively applied; otherwise, production may be impacted. Changes made in this fashion should be held in an emergency library from where they can be moved to the production library, following the normal change management process. Programmers should not directly alter the production library nor should they be allowed permanent access to production programs. 4. Though management has stated otherwise, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that the organization is using software that is not licensed. In this situation, the IS auditor should: A. include the statement of management in the audit report. B. identify whether such software is, indeed, being used by the organization. C. reconfirm with management the usag e of the software. D. discuss the issue with senior management since reporting this could have a negative impact on the organization. ANSWER: B NOTE: When there is an indication that an organization might be using nlicensed software, the IS auditor should obtain sufficient evidence before including it in the report. With respect to this matter, representations obtained from management cannot be independently verified. If the organization is using software that is not licensed, the auditor, to maintain objectivity and independence, must include this in the report. 75. Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room? A. Damage of wires around computers and servers B. A power failure from static electricity C. Shocks from earthquakes D. Water flood damage ANSWER: ANOTE: The primary reason for having a raised floor is to enable power cables and data cables to be installed underneath the floor. This eliminates the safety and damage risks pose d when cables are placed in a spaghetti-like fashion on an open floor. Static electricity should be avoided in the machine room; therefore, measures such as specially manufactured carpet or shoes would be more appropriate for static prevention than a raised floor. Raised floors do not address shocks from earthquakes. To address earthquakes, anti-seismic architecture would be required to establish a quake-resistant structural framework.Computer equipment needs to be protected against water. However, a raised floor would not prevent damage to the machines in the event of overhead water pipe leakage. 76. The network of an organization has been the victim of several intruders' attacks. Which of the following measures would allow for the early detection of such incidents? A. Antivirus software B. Hardening the servers C. Screening routers D. Honeypots ANSWER: D NOTE: Honeypots can collect data on precursors of attacks. Since they serve no business function, honeypots are hosts that have no authorized users other than the honeypot administrators.All activity directed at them is considered suspicious. Attackers will scan and attack honeypots, giving administrators data on new trends and attack tools, particularly malicious code. However, honeypots are a supplement to, not a replacement for, properly securing networks, systems and applications. If honeypots are to be used by an organization, qualified incident handlers and intrusion detection analysts should manage them. The other choices do not provide indications of potential attacks. 77. The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily to: A. prevent piggybacking.B. prevent toxic gases from entering the data center. C. starve a fire of oxygen. D. prevent an excessively rapid entry to, or exit from, the facility. ANSWER: A NOTE: The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily intended to prevent piggybacking. Choices B and C could be accomplish ed with a single self-closing door. Choice D is invalid, as a rapid exit may be necessary in some circumstances, e. g. , a fire. 78. The MOST important reason for an IS auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence is to: A. comply with regulatory requirements. B. rovide a basis for drawing reasonable conclusions. C. ensure complete audit coverage. D. perform the audit according to the defined scope. ANSWER: B NOTE: The scope of an IS audit is defined by its objectives. This involves identifying control weaknesses relevant to the scope of the audit. Obtaining sufficient and appropriate evidence assists the auditor in not only identifying control weaknesses but also documenting and validating them. Complying with regulatory requirements, ensuring coverage and the execution of audit are all relevant to an audit but are not the reason why sufficient and relevant evidence is required. 9. During the audit of a database server, which of the following would be considered the GREATEST exposure? A. The password does not expire on the administrator account B. Default global security settings for the database remain unchanged C. Old data have not been purged D. Database activity is not fully logged ANSWER: B NOTE: Default security settings for the database could allow issues like blank user passwords or passwords that were the same as the username. Logging all database activity is not practical. Failure to purge old data may present a performance issue but is not an immediate security concern.Choice A is an exposure but not as serious as B. 80. An IS auditor finds that a DBA has read and write access to production data. The IS auditor should: A. accept the DBA access as a common practice. B. assess the controls relevant to the DBA function. C. recommend the immediate revocation of the DBA access to production data. D. review user access authorizations approved by the DBA. ANSWER: B NOTE: It is good practice when finding a potential exposure to look for the best controls. Though granting the database administrator (DBA) access to production data might be a common practice, the IS auditor should evaluate the relevant controls.The DBA should have access based on a need-to-know and need-to-do basis; therefore, revocation may remove the access required. The DBA, typically, may need to have access to some production data. Granting user authorizations is the responsibility of the data owner and not the DBA. 81. What should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when employees use portable media (MP3 players, flash drives)? A. The copying of sensitive data on them B. The copying of songs and videos on them C. The cost of these devices multipl

A219 Exploring the Classical World

A219 Exploring the Classical World Essay PART ONE Look at the Illustrations Book, Plate 16: Athens: Parthenon. South metopeXXXI. Lapith and centaur. 447–439 BCE (1. 3 x 1. 3 m). In no more than 500 words: (i) briefly provide the context of this sculpture (ii) discuss the ways in which its subject matter conveyed a political message to Athenian viewers Metopes were situated on the outside of the Parthenon building they are high reliefs carved into rectangular slabs placed over the columns. There are 92 Metopes on the Parthenon building, which relate to four different myths.The Parthenon itself is a Temple dedicated to the Goddess Athena built on the Acropolis in Athens. Metope XXXI found on the southern side of the Parthenon believed to depict the Centauromachy the mythical battle between Centaurs and Lapiths. The mythical Lapith king invited the Centaurs to his wedding. Where the Centaurs got drunk and tried to abduct the bride as well as the other Lapith women. The Lapiths fo ught off the Centaurs and were victorious. (Art the Parthenon http://www. ancientgreece. com/s/Parthenon/)The Parthenon erected during the 440s- 430s’BCE was the largest of the temples on the Acropolis it was a classic Doric design which incorporated some Ionic architectural features. Even though a very impressive structure it housed the equally impressive Statue of Athena Pathenos made with Ivory and Gold, and had a separate room housing a treasury. It did not hold the most sacred image of Athena, which was a statue made of olivewood, which was within the Athena Polias Temple. This is where the Panathenaic procession ended in the early fifth century.Before the Erecthion was completed in 406 BCE (A219, DVD 2, Section3, Tracks 2-3) The other subjects of the metopes are The Trojan War, Greeks verses Amazons and The Gods verses Giants. An overall theme of order that the Greeks would prevail against non-Greeks (block2 part 2 p79) The Parthenon dominated the Acropolis and seen fro m afar it showed off the power of Athens their military prowess and the dominance of Athens over the rest of the Greek-speaking world and beyond. (Art the Parthenon http://www. ancientgreece. om/s/Parthenon/) The Parthenon was part of Pericles’ building program funded by the treasury of the Delian League, which it housed when it was completed. The political message conveyed by the subject matter of metope XXXI and the Parthenon, as a whole was one of superiority over their barbarous enemies. It portrayed barbarians non Athenians/Greeks as not having any morals, self-restraint or the ability to have reasoned rational thoughts or discussions. (OCC, p111-112) Centaurs and Amazons had become the epitome of barbarian forces who opposed the cultural and political ethos, which was predominant in Athens at that time. OCC, P148-149). The housing of the treasury of the Delian League within the Parthenon cannot be ignored either, It made it into a civic as well as religious building. Th e Delian League formed in 478 BCE against the constant threat of Persian attack. Athens did not control the funds from the formation of the league in 478 BCE they seized the opportunity to do so soon after. (BHAG, p139-140). . Athens then transferred the funds from Delos in approximately 454BCE to Athens. Athens showing its prominence to the world was also a nationalistic exercise, forging a common link among Athenians and other Greek speaking states.Bibliography Art the Parthenon, (2012 January 10) Retrieved January, 10, 2012 http://www. ancientgreece. com/s/Parthenon/) Hornblower, S. and Spawforth, A. (eds) (1998) The Oxford Companion to Classical Civilization, Oxford: Oxford University Press. (A219, DVD 2, Section3, Tracks 2-3) Pomeroy, S. B. , Burstein S. M. , Donlan W. and Roberts, J. T. (2004) A Brief History of Ancient Greece: Politics, Society and Culture, Oxford: Oxford University Press Part Two â€Å"The Athenian artistic performances and displays of the fifth century BCE were firstly and foremost a form of propaganda. Do you agree or disagree with this Statement? Answer with references to at least two of the following: the art and architecture of the Acropolis, the Ephitaphios Logos, Persians and Lysistrata Propaganda is a subjective term so for the purposes of this essay I will be using the definition provided by the (OCC, p573. ) Using Persians, Art and architecture of the Acropolis, the Ephitaphios Logos and Aristophanes Lysistrata to explore the different forms propaganda takes and whether it makes a text or piece of architecture more about propaganda than any other purpose it may serve.Before discussing these texts and architecture, it is worth noting that Pericles is closely connected to the first three items under discussion. Although Strategos at the outbreak of the Peloponnesian war he died within approx in the first two and a half years of the outbreak in429 BCE. Pericles a democratic aristocrat born in 495BCE was very successful. He was the (choregos) Chorus leader responsible for the training and paying of the festival chorus for Aeschylus’ Persians in 472BCE; he initiated the building program on the Acropolis in the 440s-430s BCE and gave the first Ephitaphios Logos of the Peloponnesian war.He was elected general (Strategos) for 29 years consecutively uncontested (OCC, p527) although democracy had been around for 50 years Pericles was the one who championed it that as well as Athenian imperialism. His peers held him in high regard. (Bhag, p145) Aeschylus’ Persians financed by Pericles is an excellent example of Integration propaganda it sought to reinforce the nature of the barbarian. Which were un-Athenian, barbarians were uneducated effeminate subject to the rule of one leader, which was anathema to the Athenian sense of superiority of mind, body and tongue.Aeschylus set the play in Persia and detailed lots of the defeat that they have suffered it was a lesson in what happens if one man rather tha n the democratic process should gain power. Persians celebrates the Greek victories over Persia and is â€Å"patting itself on the back† for having such an excellent democratic government rather than a despotic leader like Xerxes who in his hubris ransacked the temples on the Acropolis. In the speech made by Dareios (Persians lines 824-832) it is clear that the play is a moral lesson to all including the Greeks and Athenians against hubris. As well as being very pro Athenian. Block 2, part one) The Parthenon itself was both a civic and religious building its many ornate features evoking pride and citizenship. The temple was much larger than others were and could be seen from afar being high up on the Acropolis. Its large selection of decorations was superbly created the pediment pieces were fully carved all around even though they could not be viewed. On the west pediment, the dispute between Athena and Poseidon was represented competing with their chariots for the city of At hens this faced the Propylaea and could be seen from the rest of the city.The eastern pediment bore the tale of Athena’s birth from the head of Zeus. The inclusion of a second elaborate frieze, around the inside wall, that was usually viewed from afar between the outer columns. Was not a usual feature of Doric temples. The frieze believed by some scholars to evoke the Panathenaic festival is an extravagant addition to the temple. The festival is an annual event in honour of Goddess Athena’s Birthday.On the frieze itself people are depicted as well as Gods women and horseman and possibly slaves giving rise to the possibility that Athens was a society that included everybody.. This is the first instance of people being represented on a temple decoration. This could be argued that it is defiantly more about civic pride than piety. The building program, which Pericles instigated also, included the Erecthion, the Propylaea and the Temple of Athena Nike (victory) they were t o show that Athens had recovered from the Persian attack on the Acropolis in 480 BCE.The whole program was funded by money from the Delian league (Block 2, Part 2) In The Ephitaphios Logos, a version of Pericles speech by Thucydides at the end of the first year of the Peloponnesian war, he presents a very nationalistic view of Athens and of the Athenians themselves he starts out by praising the ancestors for handing down the country free and makes it clear that they did this with valour. When he states in (Reading’s book â€Å"2. 37) that, their constitution does not copy others but that others are more likely to copy it.He is saying we are the best. The speech goes on to expound the virtues of Athenian democracy and way of life and in doing so he manages to contrast it with that of life and rule in the undemocratic Greek states and non Greek lands. He seeks to instil national pride and remind the citizens of their civic duties to the state as well to fellow Athenians. As wh en a country is at war, patriotism is very important and how better to remind them of their greatness and accomplishments.It was propaganda to reinforce Athenian pride in their state and to demonize the enemy by contrasting it yet again against the mighty and great Athens. (Block 2, Part 3) , Aritophanes’Lysistrata written and performed in the twentieth year of the Peloponnesian War 411BCE was written at a time when the war was not going well for Athens they had suffered heavy losses. Things were not going to get any better for them. Political satirist Aristophanes takes the universal and â€Å"turns it upon its head†. He uses a world where mere women can outwit the men.To end a war that everybody was sick of apart from the government who had the funds to keep it going. Using all the satirist tricks of comedy, farce, parody, and a comic fool he manages to convey that the war has gone on long enough and even offers solutions with the analogy of women’s work (Lysi strata 575-587). Combining this with a good mix of the bawdy, song and dance he connects with his audience who know what the political position is at the time. In direct contrast to the above pro Athenian propaganda of Pericles’ achievements, Aristophanes Lysistrata is anti-war/Athenian propaganda. Block 2, Part Four) In conclusion, I find it hard it difficult to agree or disagree that any of the propaganda presented was the primary function of either the plays or architecture of the Acropolis. The Parthenon could very well have as much about piety as it was propaganda and the plays also had other functions Persians as a warning to all about the consequences of impiety and Lysistrata as a comedy that took the circumstances at the time so as to connect with the audience.Bibliography Hornblower, S. and Spawforth, A. (eds) (1998) The Oxford Companion to Classical Civilization, Oxford: Oxford University Press. Pomeroy, S. B. , Burstein S. M. , Donlan W. and Roberts, J. T. (2004) A Brief History of Ancient Greece: Politics, Society and Culture, Oxford: Oxford University Press Budelmann F, Hardwick L, Robson S, (2006) A219 Block 2: ‘Classical Athens’, Milton Keynes: The Open University A219 Readings Book 1, (2006) Milton Keynes: The Open University

Attitudes Toward Seeking Mental Health Essay

Abstract According to the World Health Organisation an estimated 200 million people globally are affected by serious mental health problems, however, research evidence indicates that only around one-third of those experiencing mental health difficulties actually seek treatment. A number of psycho-social and demographic factors have been found to explain variation in attitudes towards, and intentions to, seek psychological help. This study sought to examine the association between attitudes towards seeking mental health services and intentions to engage in psychological counselling. The sample for the current study consisted of 331 active and retired members of the national police force of the Republic of Ireland. It was predicted that psychological openness, help-seeking propensity, and indifference to stigma would all positively predict intentions to participate in psychological counselling, after controlling for age, gender and personality factors. The results showed that Finish Abstract Introduction According to the World Health Organisation an estimated 200 million people globally are affected by serious mental health problems (Mollica, 2000). Available data, however, suggests that only around one-third of those experiencing mental health difficulties actually make treatment contact (Kessler et al., 2009). This is of concern not only because of the deleterious impact on individual’s lives, but also because of the associated economic and societal costs of untreated mental health problems (Kessler et al., 2009). A number of psycho-social and demographic factors have been found to explain variation in attitudes towards, and intentions to, seek psychological help (e.g., Bartels, 2003; Segal, Coolidge, Mincic, & O’Riley, 2005; Vogel, Wester, Wei, & Boysen, 2005). How favourable and effective one believes psychological counselling to be, one’s own belief in their capacity to engage in counselling, and perceptions of subsequent social rejection  following counse lling attendance, have been identified as particularly influential (e.g., Hyland, McLaughlin, Boduszek, & Prentice, 2012; Vogel & Wester, 2003). Research also suggests that females may be significantly more likely than males to hold favourable attitudes towards utilising mental health services (e.g., Chandra & Minkovitz 2006; Raunic & Xenos, 2008), although some studies have shown that males and females do not differ in their attitudes or intentions towards the utilisation of mental health services (e.g., Kelly & Achter, 1995; Vogel & Wester, 2003). Additionally, personality factors have been suggested to impact upon individuals’ help-seeking attitudes and intentions. Jagdeo, Cox, Stein, and Sareen (2009) found that antisocial personality disorder was associated with greater negative attitudes towards help-seeking using data from the US National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) (n = 5877) and the Ontario Health Survey (OHS) (n = 6902). Given the disparity between mental health service needs and service utilization a more comprehensive understanding of the factors involved in counselling-seeking behaviour is required. The Inventory of Attitudes toward Seeking Mental Health Services (IASMHS; Mackenzie, Knox, Gekoski, & Macaulay, 2004) is a 24-item scale designed to assess the attitudinal factors that influence the seeking of mental health services. This scale was developed based upon Fisher and Turner’s (1970) Attitudes toward Seeking Professional Psychological Help Scale. The scale was developed with a clear theoretical foundation, and its increasing use in research (James & Buttle, 2008; Loya, Reddy, & Hinshaw, 2010; Mackenzie, Gekoski, & Knox, 2006; Mojaverian, Hashimoto, & Kim, 2012; Floersch et al., 2009). The IASMHS initially included 41-items, however the results an exploratory factor analysis (EFA) using maximum likelihood estimation among a sample of 208 adult volunteers (Mackenzie et al., 2004) reduced the number of items in the scale to 24. Results indicated that the 24-item scale could be explained in terms of three correlated factors, which accounted for 43% of variance: (a) Psychological Openness (the degree to which an individual is open to acknowledging the presence of a psychological problem and to seek professional care for such a problem), (b) Help-Seeking Propensity (one’s willingness and perceived ability to seek help for psychological problems), and (c) Indifference to Stigma (how concerned an individual would feel were significant others to discover that they were receiving psychological care).  Internal consistency coefficients for the IASMHS subscales were reported to be good with Cronbach’s alphas of .82 (psychological openness), .76 (help-seeking propensity), and .79 (indifference to stigma). Factor correlations were moderate with r values ranging from .37 to .47. In the same paper, using an independent sample of 293 undergraduate university students and employing confirmatory factor analysis (CFA) techniques, Mackenzie and colleagues (2004) reported that they replicated the three-factor solution indicated by the EFA. Model fit was acceptable and factor correlations ranged from r = .26 to .43. The current study aims to assess the degree to which intentions to participate in psychological counselling can be predicted by attitudes towards seeking mental health services. Specifically, it was predicted that psychological openness, help-seeking propensity, and indifference to stigma would all positively predict intentions to participate in psychological counselling, after controlling for age, gender and personality factors. Method Participants The sample for the current study consisted of 331 (Males: n = 202; Females: n = 129) active and retired members of the national police force of the Republic of Ireland. Of the officers recruited, 302 (91%) were currently serving members of the Irish police force, while 29 (9%) were retired. Participants ranged in age from 20 to 77 years, with an average age of 28.41 years (SD = 8.63). Just under half the sample of officers were stationed in rural areas (45%, n = 149), 41% were stationed in suburban areas (n = 136), and 14% were stationed in urban areas (n = 46). The majority of officers who participated in this study were recent entrants into the police service with 63% of respondents indicating that they had been serving for two years or less (n = 209). Approximately half were married (48%, n = 159), while the remaining participants either resided with parents (27%, n = 89), lived with other family members (3%, n = 10), or lived alone (22%, n = 73). Procedure The majority of study participants were recruited during a training seminar (n = 259), while the remaining officers were recruited via formal written requests (n = 72). Appropriate authorization was granted from the relevant  officials to carry out the study. In total, 532 members were approached to complete the research questionnaire, and 365 volunteered their participation (68%). However due to overwhelming missing data in 34 returned surveys only 331 responses were retained for the final analysis (62%). Participants were required to complete an anonymous self-report, paper-and-pencil questionnaire booklet which included an instruction sheet and a consent form attached to the front of the booklet. Participants were assured about confidentiality and informed that their participation was voluntary. Completed questionnaires were returned by the participants to their superior officer in sealed envelopes, and were subsequently returned to the principal investigator. Measures The Inventory of Attitudes toward Seeking Mental Health Services (IASMHS: Mackenzie et al., 2004) is a 24-item scale designed to measure an individual’s attitudes towards seeking mental health services. The IASMHS was developed in order to measure three factors labeled (a) Psychological openness, (b) Help-seeking propensity, and (c) Indifference to stigma. Psychological openness reflects the degree to which an individual is open to acknowledging the presence of a psychological problem and to seek professional care for such a problem. Help-seeking propensity reflects one’s willingness and perceived ability to seek help for psychological problems. Indifference to stigma refers to how concerned an individual would feel if significant others were to discover that they were receiving psychological care. Each factor is proposed to be measured via 8 items and each item is measured using a five point Likert-scale ranging from 0 (â€Å"disagree†) to 4 (â€Å"agree† ). Intentions to Participate in Psychological Counselling: Intentions were measured as part of a larger questionnaire designed to measure the various constructs of the Theory of Planned Behavior (Ajzen, 1991). This questionnaire was constructed according to the guidelines set forth by Ajzen (1991, 2002). The questionnaire was based upon a fictitious scenario which included the four elements of time, context, action, and target, as proposed by Ajzen and Fishbein (1977). The scenario describes an event that took place six weeks previously in which an individual witnesses a severe road  traffic accident. In the intervening six weeks this individual begins to experience significant personality changes. The individual is reported to now experience prolonged periods of extreme sadness, lack of energy, distressing thoughts related to the traumatic event, reduced interest in normally pleasurable activities, severe panic attacks while outside, and refusal to leave the house even for work. A friend of this individual attends a G.P. about the matter and the G.P. recommends that the described person should attend a professional psychologist for counselling within the next week. An appointment is thus made for next week. Participants in this study are asked to place themselves in the position of this fictitious person and to complete the questions that follow (see Appendix A for the full vignette). Behavioural intentions were measured via three items (Cronbach’s alpha = .77). 1. How likely is it that you would intend to go along to see a professional psychologist for counseling within the next week if you were in Terry’s position? 2. You will try to participate in counseling with a professional psychologist within the next week. 3. You have decided to participate in counseling with a professional psychologist within the next week. Each item was measured along a seven point Likert scale ranging from 1 (extremely unlikely) to 7 (extremely likely) and the scores on the three questions were summed. Higher scores on this scale indicate stronger intentions to engage in counselling.

Personal statement for Ucas Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

Personal statement for Ucas - Essay Example My capability of handling this course can be traced back to my childhood. I have always enjoyed such subjects as, mathematics, and physics. More to this, I am a good team player, who corporate maximally with other members to promote the intended objective. Given that this field requires a lot of cooperation to enhance effectiveness, I believe that I shall find it easy to work with my fellow students and colleagues after graduation. In addition, I am a very curious person. I ask several questions, and analyze situations in detail, which I believe will help me achieve success in the course, and in my future career. Having worked as an intern in Balfour Beatty plc for three months, I am further convinced that mechanical engineering adds meaning to my life. During the period of the internship, I developed my analysis, and design skills, which encouraged me to pursue this course. My inspiration to undertake this course is intrinsic. First, I am a hardworking individual, as evidenced by my high grades. I purpose to be the best in what I do, and will ensure that I do my assignments well. Secondly, I enjoy engaging in challenging activities as they promote my problem solving skills. Taking this course will expose me to technical issues that will engage my mind, thus giving me a great time in school. In addition, famous mechanical engineers, such as, Leighton Sissom inspires my life. I admire his dedication into the field, and get encouraged that I can also make it in this field. His renowned leadership in engineering makes me realize that this course offers more than just course work. Additionally, he has published various works that contribute to the advancement of engineering (Ficarra, 2010, pp.696-697). Being in the company of professional engineers also encourages me to pursue the subject. My mentor, for example, is an engineer by profession. I admire what he does, and he encourages me to pursue the subject. He

Job Selection Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Job Selection - Essay Example announcing the opening of the jobs in major newspaper and online job services, FEMA will also post such job opening at the universities to cater to students who are about to finish their Master’s degree whom FEMA could entice to join the organization. The job requires of an Information Technology Specialist requires an aptitude for Information Technology, and as such applicants without a background in Information Technology shall be given least preference. Applicants with Master’s degree in Information Technology or a security certification shall be given priority. The function of an Information Technology Specialist requires a high aptitude in computer and programming and it is critical that those skills should be present among the possible candidates. A test that determines a candidate’s competency in computer shall be administered in stages until the applicant’s skill and knowledge in computer is established. Applicants who passed the examination shall be evaluated further in an interview. Experience, attitude and other characteristics that contributes to an ideal job performance shall be evaluated during the interview. The informations that the candidate provided shall be evaluated for accuracy. This is necessary because FEMA involves national security and it is imperative to determine that the candidate is exactly what he or she said she

What impact do hostile environments have on Soldiers Essay

What impact do hostile environments have on Soldiers - Essay Example Over 1.5 million troops were deployed to Afghanistan and Iraq between 2002 to 2007, several of whom, more than just one time. Thus deployments such as those, usually lead to work-related and personal stress due to long working hours, family separation as well as uncertain schedules. Even on their return from these hostile environments several soldiers continue enduring emotional and mental strain as they try to readapt and cope with family and civilian life (Hall, 2015). Inspite of the above numerous pressures, there has been no significant change in the rate of reenlistment. All the same there are numerous psychological disorders related with a hostile environment in war; for instance shell shock (Combat Stress Reaction) and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder(PTSD).PTSD is thus a diagnosis arrived by doctors on a frequent basis for those patients that have undergone key traumas such soldiers from hostile environment, car accidents and rape(West,2012). PTSD was discovered due to the soldiers returning from the Vietnam war, even though the disorder symptoms had been all along been identified with war veterans for centuries. The real emotional effects of hostile environment on soldiers can also be extremely distressing especially to the friends and family members, because it is seen as unfair that after all they have gone through, they keep on suffering (Ausenda, 1992). The two conditions; shell shock and PTSD are basically manifestations of the attempts by the brain to deal with trauma and unable to do so adequately. Thus with PTSD, a soldier will for instance re-experience and recall the particular trauma of the hostile environment ,maybe in their dreams or even while thinking or closing their eyes. Sleeplessness is another symptom of PTSD and comes along nightmares. Thus the soldier is aware that if s/he happens to fall asleep, they could be having nightmares; hence a vicious cycle results; so as to try and keep awake for

United States Foreign Policy toward Cuba Research Paper

United States Foreign Policy toward Cuba - Research Paper Example Cuba opted to maintain its political and economic relations with the Soviet’s legal successor. Since then, U.S. had been indifferent to Cuba and decided to put restrictions on their relationship as â€Å"nations.† In fact, a law was adopted by the United States Congress to prevent international companies â€Å"from dealing with any kind of Cuban assets† (Byers and Nolte 127). The U.S. had also obtained from the United Nations Security Council â€Å"a binding international embargo against Cuba† (Byers and Nolte 127). As such, U.S. companies were prohibited to trade with the Caribbean country (Leler). Also, licensed travel was sharply restricted—travel agencies were required to have government authorization first and foremost (Schwab 75). The objective of such constraints was to economically isolate Cuba â€Å"while depriving it of U.S. dollars† (Schwab 75). For almost a decade, these restrictions were viable and effective until a new form of l eadership had taken into place. The Obama administration had considered modifying its foreign policies to bridge the gap between the Americans and Cubans. Foreign policies in the international setting are interest-specific. It is always the interest of the general public that has a great bearing in every decision making. The goal of protecting and projecting the national interest remains the same (Ahmed, qt. in â€Å"One Day Lecture†). Nevertheless, the dynamism of international affairs makes it difficult for global leaders to be focusing on the same policy every now and then. As stated by Ahmed, the periodic re-adjustment of foreign policies is an inevitable event (qt. in â€Å"One Day Lecture†). Generally, foreign policy is the fact that a nation wears in the outside world. â€Å"It is the sum total of the values† which direct the behavior of a country in the international sphere (Ahmed, qt. in â€Å"One Day Lecture†).

History Final Scholarship Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words

History Final - Scholarship Essay Example Nativism typically means "opposition to immigration" or efforts to lower the political or legal status of specific ethnic or cultural groups because they are considered hostile and alien. It marked politics in the mid-19th century United States because of the large inflows of immigrants from cultures that were markedly different from the pre-existing American culture. These efforts were based on fears that the immigrants will distort or spoil existing cultural values. Nativistic movements can allow cultural survival in situations where immigrants greatly outnumber the original inhabitants of a certain place. The Emancipation Proclamation was issued by Abraham Lincoln declaring the freedom of all slaves in any state of the Confederate States of America that did not return to Union control by January 1, 1863 (issued September 22, 1862), in the ten states that was named in the second order that was issued on January 1, 1863. The Proclamation provided the legal framework for the emancipation of nearly all four million slaves as the Union armies advanced, and committed the Union to ending slavery. However, the Proclamation did not make slavery illegal. Nevertheless, several slave states passed legislation prohibiting slavery, yet slavery continued to be legal in a few sates until December 18, 1865, when the Third Amendment was enacted. The Proclamation ended slavery and paved the way for the legislation of a law that prohibits slavery in all states. The Seneca Falls Convention The Seneca Falls Convention was an early and influential women's rights convention held in Seneca Falls, New York from July 19 to July 20, 1948. It was a single step in the continuing efforts by women to gain for themselves a greater proportion of social, civil and moral rights. The push for women's suffrage first gained national prominence at this moment. By 1851, at the second National Women's Rights Convention in Worcester, Massachusetts, the issue of women's right to vote had become a central tenet of the women's rights movement. John Brown John Brown, born on May 9, 1800, was an American abolitionist and folk hero who advocated and practiced armed insurrection as a means to end all slavery. He led the Pottawatomie Massacre in 1856 in Bleeding Kansas and made his name in the unsuccessful raid at Harper's Ferry in 1859. His attempt at Harper's Ferry to start a liberation movement among enslaved African Americans electrified the nation. He was tried for treason against the state of Virginia, the murder of five proslavery Southerners, and inciting a slave insurrection and was subsequently hanged. Southerners alleged that his rebellion was the tip of the abolitionist iceberg and represented the wishes of the Republican Party. Historians agree that the Harper's Ferry raid escalated tensions and that a year later led to secession and the American Civil War. What were the major consequences of the Mexican War' How did it affect the politics in the United States in the long term' Mexico was forced to give up a vast territory, now the present-day states of California, Nevada, Utah, Arizona, and New Mexico, to the United States. The original settlers of the ceased land were left without a home; families were split in half; livelihoods

Role of Promotion in Retailing Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words

Role of Promotion in Retailing - Essay Example The objective of the paper is to show the promotional strategies of Adidas that have been used by the company as a part of its initiatives within 2012 London Olympics as their promotion campaign. The paper also shows the role of promotion in retailing as well as the advantages of promotion and the line marketing of Adidas. Promotional Strategies: Adidas for London Olympics 2012 Promotion is one of the most essential tools in marketing of a product. The elements of promotion are advertising, personal selling, publicity, sales promotion and direct marketing. A company makes a promotional mix to identify the budget to conduct the promotion and to recognise the importance that is to be provided to the various elements of promotional mix. The objectives of the promotional plan include augmentation of sales, recognition of the new product, brand equity creation and corporate image creation among others (McGoldrick, 2002). ... t with a outlook to meet up the necessities of the promotion Promotion helps in improving the morale as well as the satisfaction of the job of the employee By improving the morale of the employees, promotion ultimately helps in improving the organizational health It creates alertness of the survival of the product as well as the service provided Promotion helps a company to enlarge its market share Promotion provides information regarding the products as well as the services to the consumers that produces an incentive for the consumers to procure the products as well as use the services (McGoldrick, 2002) Adidas is known as one of the prominent sportswear manufacturers of the world. The Adidas Group was established by Adolf Dassler on 1949 with its headquarters in Germany. The first as well as the foremost global achievement of the brand was celebrated in 1954 when Germany won the championship of soccer. In middle of the 1980’s, the group had certain commercial breakdown but i n 1995 the Adidas Group regained its momentum and to stay in a competitive market with Nike, in 2006 Adidas had taken over Reebok. The company sponsors many games with their own capital and its sportswear such as soccer and Olympics among others (Adidas Group, 2012). To grow to be the top retailer and provide with quality products are the main visions of Adidas. Retailing is important to show the breath of the product, to build division in markets where traditional structure of wholesaling does not exist and to influence the knowledge from own retail for the whole organization (Adidas Group, 2012). Adidas is going to be the official partner regarding sportswear for the London Olympics for the year 2012 (Guardian News and Media Limited, 2012). Adidas will act as the official partner for the team

Stress coping in people with HIV positive Essay

Stress coping in people with HIV positive - Essay Example After discussing the possible treatment and prevention approaches used in people with HIV, strategic ways on how health care professionals can enable them to cope with the psychological distress associated with the disease will be thoroughly discussed. By going through a personal reflection, the health situation will be applied in Hong Kong particularly on how the HK government is promoting safer sex practice. The fact that HIV infection is a life-threatening disease is already considered as a major source of stress among the HIV infected individuals. (Riggs, Vosvick, & Stalling, 2007) Individuals who were informed by their physicians that ‘they only have few months to live’ could negatively affect the physical functioning, psychological, social, and emotional well-being of the person. As a result, some of the HIV infected people loses their hope to be treated and cured from the disease. HIV infected individuals would tend to withdraw from their social life aside from putting an end to their relationship with their love ones (Wadland & Gleeson, 1991). In most cases, there is a strong possibility for HIV infected individuals to unconsciously use other maladaptive coping strategies including denial, disengagement, and/or abusing the use of illegal substances (Gore-Felton et al., 2006; Komiti et al., 2003). Aside from the having the thought that the life span of HIV infected individuals is already limited, it is likely that these individuals would seek medical assistance from professional medical team. Basically, the cost of treating and promoting a better quality life for HIV infected individuals can be very costly not only on the part of the HIV infected individual himself but also to his family members. In line with the high cost of medical intervention, we can consider the financial burden of becoming infected with HIV as